Actually, maybe I *can* think of a way...
Feb. 20th, 2009 10:10 pm![[personal profile]](https://www.dreamwidth.org/img/silk/identity/user.png)
It's just occurred to me...
Separation of church and state, as enshrined in the First Amendment, is designed to prevent the state from interfering with the church ("shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion"). The converse, that the church should not be able to interfere with the state, is implied by the word "separation" but as far as I know not stated in the text. Obviously I ANAL (some would say extremely) but I wonder if it would be possible to make a case that "the state" should be interpreted to mean "any matter involving secular law" (in other words, employment, contracts, marriage, medical practice, education and so on) and that the price of state non-interference in religious matters should be a reciprocal non-interference in secular matters from religious establishments?
Obviously it's easier to say than to do. There would be huge resistance, and it would probably have to be done gradually with test cases to establish precedents, but I think the logic works. Clearly the current arrangement is hugely one-sided. The aim would eventually be that even faith-based organisations would have to comply in all respects relating to their actual operations with secular law. The Biblical reference would be "Render unto Caesar all things that are Caesar's." Initiatives that are clearly faith-based, such as the teaching of creationism or bloody prop 8, could be abolished that way, maybe. And no amount of money or influence would be enough to allow a faith-based organisation to effect any change to secular law. It would simply be illegal.
The place for faith is in the individual heart, and the sole justifiable purpose of religious organisations is to allow people a place to express that faith in worship. In every other respect, outside the home, secular law should apply across the board.
Let me down easy, will you? I'm trying here.
Separation of church and state, as enshrined in the First Amendment, is designed to prevent the state from interfering with the church ("shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion"). The converse, that the church should not be able to interfere with the state, is implied by the word "separation" but as far as I know not stated in the text. Obviously I ANAL (some would say extremely) but I wonder if it would be possible to make a case that "the state" should be interpreted to mean "any matter involving secular law" (in other words, employment, contracts, marriage, medical practice, education and so on) and that the price of state non-interference in religious matters should be a reciprocal non-interference in secular matters from religious establishments?
Obviously it's easier to say than to do. There would be huge resistance, and it would probably have to be done gradually with test cases to establish precedents, but I think the logic works. Clearly the current arrangement is hugely one-sided. The aim would eventually be that even faith-based organisations would have to comply in all respects relating to their actual operations with secular law. The Biblical reference would be "Render unto Caesar all things that are Caesar's." Initiatives that are clearly faith-based, such as the teaching of creationism or bloody prop 8, could be abolished that way, maybe. And no amount of money or influence would be enough to allow a faith-based organisation to effect any change to secular law. It would simply be illegal.
The place for faith is in the individual heart, and the sole justifiable purpose of religious organisations is to allow people a place to express that faith in worship. In every other respect, outside the home, secular law should apply across the board.
Let me down easy, will you? I'm trying here.
no subject
Date: 2009-02-20 11:54 pm (UTC)The only objection I would have is a practical one rather than one against the principle of the thing, and that is that there is kind of a blurry line between encouraging members of one's religion to vote because you think they will mostly vote "one's way,"and pressuring members of one's religion to believe that the religion requires they vote "one's way".
Supposing for a moment that "one's way" meant, for instance, removing the right of gays to marry, the first looks unfortunate, but within the spirit of such separation, the second looks (to me) to be against the spirit of such separation, and I'm not sure how to equip the law to distinguish between them.
That said, I admire the principle.
Also this sounds like it may be referring to an earlier post I haven't seen yet, so I may be responding in haste without a full understanding of what you have in mind. I will keep reading down the friends page.
no subject
Date: 2009-02-21 12:08 am (UTC)I really, honestly, am on your side.
no subject
Date: 2009-02-21 03:04 am (UTC)I accept that we are on the same side, and withdraw my previous comments and implications to the contrary.
no subject
Date: 2009-02-21 03:19 am (UTC)no subject
Date: 2009-02-21 05:10 am (UTC)IMHO, this separation ought to prohibit the government from having anything to do with marriage. There should be no licensing, no special privileges for married people, and no penalties for them either. The Federal government does not license marriages, but it does recognize them in the income tax laws.
Prop 8 only affects California. Several other states have the same law in place, and it's not much of an issue there because mob rule always wins when there is a large enough mob.
The place for faith is in the individual heart, and the sole justifiable purpose of religious organizations is to allow people a place to express that faith in worship. In every other respect, outside the home, secular law should apply across the board.
Absolutely. And in America, there are no laws from any religious order which the government imposes on the general public. If the Pope or the Archbishop of Canterbury or the Dalai Lama or the mullah of the week makes a pronouncement that all person must do so-and-so, it carries no weight outside that religion's congregations. Only secular law applies.
However, it should be noted that many secular laws are based on religious teachings, especially the Old Testament which has 600+ laws to choose from. We can thank certain Christian sects for bringing monogamy to America and making it the law. Judaism has no limit on the number of wives a man can have, Islam caps it at 5, and so on.
no subject
Date: 2009-02-21 09:50 am (UTC)And, not getting back into the marriage rhubarb if I can possibly avoid it, but it depends whether you regard marriage as a purely religious or as a purely civil matter. I've seen both opinions expressed, and given mine, which is that something that we call "marriage" is older than both religion and civil law, and ideally neither should have the power to dictate what it is or what it isn't...but on the other hand, part of what we call "marriage" is the witnessing of some sort of commitment by some sort of community, and both churches and governments come in kind of handy for facilitating that.
And in America, there are no laws from any religious order which the government imposes on the general public.
That's a somewhat narrow reading of what I said. I am sure Cat or Lil could give you numerous examples of religious orders and organisations getting, or trying to get, their prejudices enshrined in law at one level or another. That is what needs to be stopped. I admit I'm hazy on the details of how, but that it is happening seems to be beyond doubt.
As for your final point, I'll leave that to someone else to address...
no subject
Date: 2009-02-21 12:45 pm (UTC)Yes indeed. Proposition 8 pops immediately to mind.
no subject
Date: 2009-02-21 07:06 pm (UTC)no subject
Date: 2009-02-21 07:19 pm (UTC)Interesting statistic, though.
no subject
Date: 2009-02-21 12:53 pm (UTC)However, I don't really understand what you're suggesting that means.
If you mean "religions have affected secular law in the past," yeah, but so what?
If you mean "religions have sometimes promoted laws that are good for secular reasons," again, yeah, but so what?
If you mean "religions are a source of laws that are good for secular reasons, so we should keep getting our secular laws from religion" they're also a source of laws that are bad for secular reasons, and we have other sources of good laws; we can afford to (and should) discard this one which gives such mixed results.
If you mean "men should be allowed to have many wives but women shouldn't be allowed to have many husbands," hell no!
I'm just not sure where you're going with this, but having covered some obvious possiblities, I'll pause for now.
no subject
Date: 2009-02-21 06:57 pm (UTC)I wasn't really going anywhere, just hanging some things out there to ponder.
Where I was coming from, though, is on
What I meant about marriages is anyone who wants to marry anyone else should have that right, unrestricted by puritanical laws. "Anyone" is conveniently both singular and plural. :-)
no subject
Date: 2009-02-21 07:21 pm (UTC)no subject
Date: 2009-02-21 11:04 am (UTC)no subject
Date: 2009-02-21 12:54 pm (UTC)no subject
Date: 2009-02-21 11:12 pm (UTC)And yes, Washington and Adams made it very clear in the Treaty of Tripoli that the USA was "in no way based upon the Christian religion". They also declared their support for Muslims.
no subject
Date: 2009-02-21 02:30 pm (UTC)no subject
Date: 2009-02-21 11:13 pm (UTC)no subject
Date: 2009-02-21 02:47 pm (UTC)I'm not convinced by that, possibly because I'm not reading it the way you meant it. Would you count Christian Aid as a religious organisation? (As far as I can tell Christian Aid will happily take money from non-Christians, and will help non-Christians, so maybe it isn't.) Should religions that teach that charity is good be forced to do it through secular organisations with no religious affiliation? What about organisations checking compliance with kosher or halal rules?
That everybody should be equally subject to secular law, I absolutely agree with. But I can't see it being practical to stop people with a shared faith campaigning together for secular laws that agree with their viewpoint. How could you allow people to campaign against slavery because it was inhumane, but not because it was against God's will, if some of them consider that being inhumane is wrong because it is against God's will?
no subject
Date: 2009-02-21 03:38 pm (UTC)no subject
Date: 2009-02-21 04:14 pm (UTC)no subject
Date: 2009-02-21 04:19 pm (UTC)no subject
Date: 2009-02-21 06:36 pm (UTC)no subject
Date: 2009-02-21 07:30 pm (UTC)no subject
Date: 2009-02-21 07:39 pm (UTC)