(no subject)
Apr. 16th, 2010 12:26 pm![[personal profile]](https://www.dreamwidth.org/img/silk/identity/user.png)
Is there anywhere in the previous post where I can be shown to have said that I want other people not to be able to speak good English so that I can feel superior to them? Is there anywhere in the previous post where I have failed to make it clear that I would like everyone to be able to speak good English so that nobody can feel superior to anyone?
Thought not.
Thought not.
no subject
Date: 2010-04-16 12:01 pm (UTC)More to the point, I didn't see any indication that anyone else thought so. What did I miss?
(no subject)
From:no subject
Date: 2010-04-16 02:10 pm (UTC)I didn't see anything explicit that implied any kind of superiority. I can see how can be thought of as inferior if they do not speak well which can be connected to inadequate education. But you did not discuss that. I'm guessing someone mentioned this in a PM?
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Date: 2010-04-16 02:20 pm (UTC)That said, with your assertion that only you (and those who agree with you) know HOW to speak "good English" (whatever "good" is) you ARE proposing that you ARE superior to other people who interpret the language differently. You just want everyone to be like you and then everything will be fine. The problem is we all lose our own language. That was the point I was making in my original post. You have it here now.
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Date: 2010-04-16 05:16 pm (UTC)