avevale_intelligencer: (Default)
[personal profile] avevale_intelligencer
Can the scope of a legal precedent be expanded upon by subsequent interpretation, as for instance in a ruling once established for one kind of case being used in another kind of case? Are there examples of this happening?

I'd like to know, because it seems that I may have been talking "crap" and/or indulging in a "logical fallacy."
This account has disabled anonymous posting.
If you don't have an account you can create one now.
HTML doesn't work in the subject.
More info about formatting

Profile

avevale_intelligencer: (Default)
avevale_intelligencer

April 2019

S M T W T F S
 123456
78 910111213
14151617181920
21222324252627
282930    

Most Popular Tags

Style Credit

Expand Cut Tags

No cut tags
Page generated Jul. 11th, 2025 12:58 pm
Powered by Dreamwidth Studios