Question for my legally-inclined friends
Aug. 24th, 2008 09:39 am![[personal profile]](https://www.dreamwidth.org/img/silk/identity/user.png){kind=small}
avevale_intelligencerCan the scope of a legal precedent be expanded upon by subsequent interpretation, as for instance in a ruling once established for one kind of case being used in another kind of case? Are there examples of this happening?
I'd like to know, because it seems that I may have been talking "crap" and/or indulging in a "logical fallacy."
I'd like to know, because it seems that I may have been talking "crap" and/or indulging in a "logical fallacy."